Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 11:44
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Rory McIlroy had three words for USGA official when asked to speak with media at US Open - Golfmagic
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Has anyone been tricked into having sex with a shemale? How was the experience?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.